My deed states that the easement of access ,which is the roadway to my property, was bought and paid for...
I am the dominant tenant of the easement and the property owner is the servient tenant; however,
1. with the deed stating that the easement was bought and paid for --- do I have to share the easement with the property owner
2. and do I have to provide all the expense of upkeep of the driveway.
Any help would be appreciated.

You will have to do a title search on both your property and the neighbor's property to find when the easement was granted to see if there were any conditions.

If there were no conditions then yes, the owner of the property is allowed to use the easement. It is their property, after all, and you have merely been given a right to pass over it.

If both of you are using it then you are equally responsible for the expenses. If one of you uses it more than the other then the responsibility for the expenses should be proportionate with the use.

I understand "if had been given permission" however the right of way
Was BOUGHT and PAID For Would this have made a difference

It is documented on my deed as such.

You bought and paid for an easement. You didn't buy the land. You bought the right to pass over the land. You bought permission to enter their property and use it to reach your property.

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Originally Posted by HorseLady76

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1. with the deed stating that the easement was bought and paid for --- do I have to share the easement with the property owner
2. and do I have to provide all the expense of upkeep of the driveway.....

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Simply because you paid for an easement doesn't give you the right to use it to the exclusion of the owner of the subservient fee simple. So,

1. yes, unless stated otherwise in the easement; and
2. probably, again unless stated otherwise.

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Originally Posted by HorseLady76

My deed states that the easement of access ,which is the roadway to my property, was bought and paid for .....

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If the "bought and paid for" statement refers specifically to the easement, then that is what was bought and paid for, the easement. Nothing more, nothing less. An easement is necessarily granted for free.

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Originally Posted by ScottGem

... An easement is necessarily granted for free.

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An easement is not necessarily granted for free. It is usually created by deed, which typically starts "for $__, and other good and valuable consideration...". It is usually paid for. So the "bought and paid for" language OP is so concerned about is redundant. It is surplussage. It is saying the same thing twice.

Ooops, that was NOT a good slip of the keyboard.

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Originally Posted by AK lawyer

An easement is not necessarily granted for free. It is usually created by deed, which typically starts out "for $__, and other good and valuable consideration...". It is usually paid for. So the "bought and paid for" language OP is so concerned about is redundant. It is surplussage. It is saying the same thing twice.

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Thanks this clears it up I can not find any other conditions The new owner has started flexing his right on the land and is creating hardship for me guess just have to deal with him legally. Something he is stepping out of line on such as water run off on a 20 foot slope and ordinances of county concerning the area and flooding thanks so much I appreciate the response