I am divorced but still paying some of the mortgage towards my home prior to the divorce. My ex wife is living there with her new partner and my son, she has a baby due at the end of February and getting married in July. She now wants me to sign the deeds of the house over to her and her new partner for nothing. There is £18,000 pounds equity in the property, am I entitled to any of this? She is requesting I sign a TR1 and an ID1 form, should I do this without seeking legal advice?

No you shouldn't sign anything without knowing the full ramifications. In this case if your still on the title and if in your final decree the home was left undecided then you may be entitled to a portion of the profits. Was the home ownership decided?