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-   -   Can you vote away rights?? (https://www.askmehelpdesk.com/showthread.php?t=634287)

  • Feb 8, 2012, 07:22 AM
    excon
    Can you vote away rights??
    Hello:

    NO!

    I've been saying that for quite some time. I don't know WHY you DON'T believe me, but in this great country of ours, you just can't do that. If YOU have a right to DO something, that means EVERYBODY has that right, and that's the way it SHOULD be... Really... It's IN there.

    excon
  • Feb 8, 2012, 07:37 AM
    speechlesstx
    69,456,897 people voted for a guy who has taken away the church's first amendment rights.
  • Feb 8, 2012, 07:42 AM
    excon
    G'morning, Steve:

    That's a nice right wing spin... However, as we've established on the other thread, the church can BE a church if it chooses. It just can't BE a hospital and call it a church.

    But, I want to know what you think about gay marriage BEING part and parcel of our society... Can you live with it, or like the Catholic church, you'll pick up your blocks and go home?

    excon
  • Feb 8, 2012, 07:52 AM
    tomder55
    I disagree on it being a right . This court could only make it's case if it redefined the historic definition of marriage .

    Here is what NY courts have said regarding any canard of equal protection,due process, or the court's power to trample on the decisions of the Legislature on this issue :

    "The idea that same-sex marriage is even possible is a relatively new one. Until a few decades ago, it was an accepted truth for almost everyone who ever lived, in any society in which marriage existed, that there could be marriages only between participants of different sex. A court should not lightly conclude that everyone who held this belief was irrational, ignorant or bigoted. We do not so conclude.".......
    "By limiting marriage to opposite-sex couples, New York is not engaging in sex discrimination. The limitation does not put men and women in different classes, and give one class a benefit not given to the other. Women and men are treated alike — they are permitted to marry people of the opposite sex, but not people o their own sex. "...."The cases before us present no occasion for this Court to debate whether the State Legislature should, as a matter of social welfare or sound public policy, extend marriage to same-sex couples. Our role is limited to assessing whether the current statutory scheme offends the Due Process or Equal Protection Clauses of the New York constitution. Because it does not, we must affirm. Absent a constitutional violation, we may not disturb duly enacted statutes to, in effect, substitute another policy preference for that of the Legislature.

    "...It would be inappropriate for us to interpret the Domestic Relations Law in a manner that virtually all conclude would not comport with legislative intent. There is no basis to conclude that, when the Legislature adopted the Domestic Relations Law more than a century ago, it contemplated the possibility of same-sex marriage, much less intended to authorize it."
    http://www.prideagenda.org/Portals/0...86-89opn06.pdf

    Here in NY now we have a Gay Marriage law. I don't like it ;but at least I know it is the decision of the law makers ;and not the black robed oligarchs who are imposing rights divined out of thin air .
  • Feb 8, 2012, 07:55 AM
    Fr_Chuck
    First of course it is not a right, nothing in the US constitution gives anyone a right to marry, gay , straight or plural.

    This is just an example of the courts making law and acting illegally and outside of their intent.
    For the court to make law, is more a dictatorship of the court.
    Much better for the vote and will of the people, than the choice of a few people being forced on the majority
  • Feb 8, 2012, 07:58 AM
    excon
    Quote:

    Originally Posted by tomder55 View Post
    There is no basis to conclude that, when the Legislature adopted the Domestic Relations Law more than a century ago, it contemplated the possibility of same-sex marriage, much less intended to authorize it.

    Hello tom:

    True. So?

    excon
  • Feb 8, 2012, 08:01 AM
    excon
    Quote:

    Originally Posted by Fr_Chuck View Post
    First of course it is not a right, nothing in the US constitution gives anyone a right to marry, gay , straight or plural.

    Much better for the vote and will of the people, than the choice of a few people being forced on the majority

    Hello Padre:

    You hit the nail on the head.. Rights AREN'T very popular. If the Bill of Rights were brought up for a vote, it wouldn't pass... You KNOW that to be so.

    It's also true, too, that marriage isn't mentioned... But, equal protection is. And, equal protection means that if YOU have the right to DO something, and that's marry a person of your choice, then EVERYBODY has that right...

    Really... That's what the 14th Amendment says... You believe it, don't you?

    excon
  • Feb 8, 2012, 08:11 AM
    tomder55
    You forgot this part of my quote...

    By limiting marriage to opposite-sex couples, New York is not engaging in sex discrimination. The limitation does not put men and women in different classes, and give one class a benefit not given to the other. Women and men are treated alike — they are permitted to marry people of the opposite sex, but not people o their own sex. "....

    Sorry ;this is NOT an equal protection issue.
  • Feb 8, 2012, 08:35 AM
    speechlesstx
    Quote:

    Originally Posted by excon View Post
    G'morning, Steve:

    That's a nice right wing spin... However, as we've established on the other thread, the church can BE a church if it chooses. It just can't BE a hospital and call it a church.

    No, that's only established in your mind.


    Quote:

    But, I want to know what you think about gay marriage BEING part and parcel of our society... Can you live with it, or like the Catholic church, you'll pick up your blocks and go home?
    I've always said gays are free to marry someone of the opposite sex just like anyone else. You just want to redefine marriage just like you're trying to redefine the church. Precedence is on my side in both cases.
  • Feb 9, 2012, 02:09 PM
    speechlesstx
    Speaking of shameless Obama power grabs...

    Obama declares himself dictator of education

    Quote:

    President Obama granted 10 states (Colorado, Florida, Georgia, Indiana, Kentucky, Massachusetts, Minnesota, New Jersey, Oklahoma and Tennessee) waivers from the federal government's No Child Left Behind law today. The action will temporarily prevent schools in each states from suffering federal sanctions for not meeting reading and math standards by 2014.

    Any time the federal government decreases its role in education should be a good thing. But that is not what Obama is doing. The Heritage Foundation's Lindsey Burke reports:

    These are not simply waivers to provide relief to states from the onerous provisions of No Child Left Behind. These are conditions-based waivers, and the strings attached to this “relief” further tether states to Washington.
    ...
    One of the most concerning conditions attached to the waivers is a requirement that states adopt common standards and tests or have their state university approve their standards. None of the waiver-approved states opted for the latter. The administration’s various carrots and sticks ($4.35 billion in Race to the Top grants and potential Title I dollars) had already pushed them to begin implementing the Common Core national standards and tests.

    When national organizations and the Department of Education dictate standards and tests, they effectively control what can—and can’t--be taught in local schools. The degree to which these critical decisions are about to be centralized and nationalized is unprecedented in America.

    Even worse, nothing in federal law grants Obama the power to issue these conditional waivers. He is unilaterally rewriting federal education policy through selective enforcement. The American Enterprise Institute's Frederick Hess tells the Christian Science Monitor: "NCLB, for all its flaws, was crafted by the US Congress … [but] these waivers impose a raft of new federal requirements that were never endorsed by the legislative branch. Once this administration opens this door, it’s hard to imagine future administrations not building on this precedent."

    And last year The Brookings Institution wrote:

    It is one thing for an administration to grant waivers to states to respond to unrealistic conditions on the ground or to allow experimentation and innovation. ... The NCLB waiver authority does not grant the secretary of education the right to impose any conditions he considers appropriate on states seeking waivers, nor is there any history of such a wholesale executive branch rewrite of federal law through use of the waiver authority.
    Considering how epically unpopular Obamacare is, this whole sale abuse of a waiver process to fundamentally rewrite federal policy may not be the precedent Obama wants to set.
    Laws, what laws? We don't need no stinkin' laws.
  • Feb 9, 2012, 03:07 PM
    tomder55
    He changed to law to " Only Some Children Left Behind".

    I'm confused however. During his address he praised these states for excellence and coming up with new innovative ways and higher benchmarks than NCLB .
    "We offered every state the same deal," ....."We said, if you're willing to set higher, more honest standards than the ones that were set by No Child Left Behind, then we're going to give you the flexibility to meet those standards. We want high standards, and we'll give you flexibility in return."
    I live close enough to Jersey to know this isn't the case... unless you consider that the Governor has been kicking some teacher's union butt and demanding accountabilty from them.

    Also interesting is that New Mexico was the only state that was denied .

    Here's the bottom line on Federal interference in Education.
    1979 Dept of Education established.
    1983 federal report on education called “A Nation at Risk"
    1991 “America 2000”
    1994 “Goals 2000”
    2001 “No Child Left Behind”
    And now “Race to the Top”'

    Seen any improvement yet ? Maybe the Federal Government isn't good at running the nations schools??
  • Feb 10, 2012, 08:53 AM
    speechlesstx
    Quote:

    Originally Posted by tomder55 View Post
    Seen any improvement yet ? Maybe the Federal Government isn't good at running the nations schools ????

    It's all a shameless power grab.
  • Feb 18, 2012, 11:15 PM
    TUT317
    Quote:

    Originally Posted by excon View Post
    Hello:

    NO!

    I've been saying that for quite some time. I dunno WHY you DON'T believe me, but in this great country of ours, you just can't do that. If YOU have a right to DO something, that means EVERYBODY has that right, and that's the way it SHOULD be... Really... It's IN there.

    excon


    Hi ex,

    After all of the discussion going on in the 'Churches' thread the answer to your question just hit me.

    No, they carn't take your rights away, but what they seem to be trying to do is change the status of your rights.

    Corporate personhood relates to what corporations OUGHT to do. This means that corporations operate within the law, I e what the law PRESCRIBES. The other position is what you referr to as, "it's IN there". Other names for this might be ,what is the case, or a DESCRIPTIVE explanation.

    THe Constitution is an, 'it's IN there' document. It doesn't really matter what term you employ(descriptive, is) it all means the same thing. It means that people have certain inalienable, absolute rights that are unchanged and unmoved by circumstances.

    For this purpose I call the Constitution a DESCRIPTIVE document. It all means the same thing. Men have these rights are are not subject to the whim of the legal interpretation by "black robed oligarchs" ( as Tom would say) who think that rights can change depending on the circumstances.

    This is where the idea of corporate personhood gets interesting. Well,from my point of view anyway.

    A corporation normally operates under prescriptive laws. Hower they have something better. Not only do they have a foot in the prescriptive camp they also have a foot in the descriptive camp. This is because a corporation can also claim some rights afforded to a person under the "it's IN there"

    The trend, though accident or design seems to using corporate personhood in reverse (for the want of a better explanation).

    By taking some of these absolute rights and giving them a prescriptive definition your rights now have a foot in both camps. For example, you can argue that universal health care is not a absolute right but by making this right prescriptive it makes it possible to argue legally that this is a right all citizens OUGHT to have.

    Tut
  • Feb 19, 2012, 04:13 AM
    tomder55
    People don't lose rights when they assemble in association. A corporation is not a person in that they are a breathing carbon entity ,but clearly they have rights and standing under the law. ( Dartmouth College v. Woodward)(Santa Clara County vs. Southern Pacific Railway )
    Quote:

    It cannot be any other way; in a world where corporations are not entitled to constitutional protections, the police would be free to storm office buildings and seize computers or documents. The mayor of New York City could exercise eminent domain over Rockefeller Center by fiat and without compensation if he decides he'd like to move his office there. Moreover, the government would be able to censor all corporate speech, including that of so-called media corporations. In short, rights-bearing individuals do not forfeit those rights when they associate in groups.
    http://www.cato.org/pubs/articles/Sh...44-n4-2011.pdf
  • Feb 19, 2012, 04:58 AM
    TUT317
    Quote:

    Originally Posted by tomder55 View Post
    People don't lose rights when they assemble in association. A corporation is not a person in that they are a breathing carbon entity ,but clearly they have rights and standing under the law. ( Dartmouth College v. Woodward)(Santa Clara County vs. Southern Pacific Railway )

    http://www.cato.org/pubs/articles/Sh...44-n4-2011.pdf

    Hi Tom,

    As you can see from my previous reference to corporate personhood I was struggling for a way to explain my idea.

    Nonetheless, I am saying that if you accept corporate personhood as a quasi legal definition( I am assuming you do) then you cannot complain when an administration takes your descriptive rights and tries to make them prescriptive.

    Tut
  • Feb 19, 2012, 07:13 AM
    tomder55
    yes I can... because in no instance does the constitution say what the government must do regarding rights(it does give the government limited powers that are necessary to secure the nation) ;but the amendments say clearly what the government shall not do.

    In the case of the contraceptive mandates ;the problem is in the mandates ;especially ones that violate religious liberty ,and not in the availablilty of contraception . But removing the religion from the equation ;the government still has no authority to force anyone to buy any product or service just because they exist.

    In the case of corporate "personhood" the only real question is not whether a corporation is one . The honest debate would be if money = speech.(Buckley v. Valeo... “virtually every means of communicating ideas in today's mass society requires the expenditure of money,” .)So according to the ruling , restricting campaign spending means restricting political speech. The First Amendment required that political speech be unfettered, so the same was required for political spending.
  • Feb 19, 2012, 07:23 AM
    paraclete
    It seems to me you have a law that you can make mean anything you want it to mean. That surely was not the original intention which was to set limits on government
  • Feb 19, 2012, 02:00 PM
    TUT317
    Quote:

    Originally Posted by tomder55 View Post
    yes I can ...because in no instance does the constitution say what the government must do regarding rights(it does give the government limited powers that are necessary to secure the nation) ;but the amendments say clearly what the govenment shall not do.
    .

    Hi Tom,

    Yes, this is because rights are an absolute. But isn't that the problem? Does it say anywhere in the Constitution that a government can't give a word such as 'religion' a quasi meaning? It is still an absolute but also has a particular meaning in a particular situation.

    I got this idea from Steve who was bitterly complaining ( and rightly so) about the administration redefining religion for insurances purposes.

    Tut
  • Feb 19, 2012, 02:19 PM
    tomder55
    Yes Steve is right . What you call prescriptive. ;I call audacious ,unconstitutional chutzpa .
    What Obamessiah has decreed from above is that a religions work only happens inside the confined spaces of the edifice used for worship. All their other ministries are not .
  • Feb 19, 2012, 02:29 PM
    paraclete
    So Tom if I understand this new definition, ministry is not religion, religion is confined to the practice of worship.

    I wonder then what does a minister think he is doing? Public service serving the administration?

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