I'm told that if a firm refuses to validate a debt under the FDCPA, they may not legally collect the debt. Further, I'm told that a billing statement is not considered proof. Is that true? If so, can someone cite the law so I can cite it in court?

My situation is that I'm being sued by Weltman, Weinberg and Reis for a Discover credit card bill. I've asked, twice, in writing, for them to validate the debt and they have sent me nothing but a recent statement. That's nothing but a total figure--nothing says how much is owed for what purpose.

Am I right that a billing statement is not legally considered proof?

Thanks so much for the help. I've learned a lot already by reading many other posts. This is a great forum.

Validate:
1. confirm truthfulness of something: to confirm or establish the truthfulness or soundness of something


2. law make something legal: to declare or render something legal or binding
Validate a passport


3. register something formally: to register something formally and have its use officially sanctioned

The only way they can truly validate the alleged debt is to provide a signed contract. They know this but they will continue to play games.

Read this post:

https://www.askmehelpdesk.com/bankru...aus-51714.html