If I had sexual intercourse on may 25, and I took a blood pregnancy test on June 14 which resulted negative ( hcg level 1.83). It's a 20 day gap in between could it be posible for it to be a false negative or it would be accurate already if I did pregnant that day? Im trying to figure out who could be my baby's father.
I also had an abortion on may 18.
  
 Im currently 24 weeks.

I can only conjecture from the information you provided that with you having an abortion on the 18th, sex on the 25th (you didn't say if you used protection or not) then a negative test on June 14 and it is now 5 months later and you haven't noticed any signs of pregnancy , you most likely are not.

Although anytime you have sex you risk pregnancy unless you have a physical condition preventing you from becoming pregnant.
Keep this in mind and always use protection

Being 24 weeks is likely taken from the first day of your last menstrual cycle. Do you recall when your last period was? Usually you aren't actually pregnant at that time; with conception often occurring a week or two after.

If that is the case, then it is possible that you became pregnant in early June and the test was too early to pick it up. When were the other times you had intercourse after 25 May?

If your dates of being with two, or more, men are that close, you will need a DNA test to determine who the father is.

Yes I'm currently 24 weeks pregnant right now. And that was my only encounter on may 25 with partner#1 I didn't use protection only withdrawl method but no ejeculation AT ALL, inside nor outside, but I also had an abortion may 18 and I don't know if it was too soon to ovulate.
With partner#2 I did have continuous sex starting in early June with no protection and I remember around June 6 I had crampin, not sure if it could have been ovulation.
I took a blood test on June 14 but came out negative HCG level was below 2. I think if I would have had gotten pregnant from partner#1 and being a 20 day gap in between it would have been positive. Correct?

Did you have a period after partner #1 and before being with partner #2? Was the 24 weeks determined from your last period or from an ultrasound? That can be a factor.

You could have ovulated after the first encounter as it varies from person to person when you might ovulate after an abortion. Granted there would likely be minimal sperm without actual ejaculation (in terms of the numbers usually present), but pregnancy can still occur. Actual conception may have taken place a few days after that encounter.

Usually, a quantitative blood test (which gives the actual level of hcg) on June 14 would pick it up by then.

If you did happen to ovulate around June 6, then it may indeed have been too early for the test to show a positive level.

Odds are that baby is from partner #2, simply due to the events of each encounter, but your dates are so close that you would really need DNA testing to know for sure.

Silvadiana,

I have obviously misunderstood your original post and apologize for not being more concise and careful when I read your question.

Thank God for Doula

Yea everyone told me if I got pregnant from partner one it would have piked up already in the hcg beta test and it didn't. A period was never involved because before any encounter I had an abortion and after I was pregnant again. With partner 1 no semen was involved inside nor outside vaginal area and how soon after abortion can one ovulate. I was 5 weeks along and took pills oraly.

24 weeks was confirmed with an ultrasound