I bought the house in 1989, and lived there with my children for 12 years before meeting my current husband. We married in 2003 and are getting divorced now, in 2011. We refinanced in 2003 and ended up paying off the house in 2006. I feel I should get more than half the proceeds from the sale of the house, since I owned it way before I ever know him..

You will only get what you can convince a judge you should have. Technically you did not own the home before you two met, the bank held the deed. We do not have enough info to give you a more accurate answer but tel us where you live.

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Originally Posted by nuttypuppy333

I feel I should get more than half the proceeds from the sale of the house, since I owned it way before I ever know him..

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Hello nutty:

Community property is that which is acquired During the marriage.. What you brought INTO the marriage, you should LEAVE with.

That's the way it SHOULD be... But, court isn't always about the way it SHOULD be. Often times, it's about who has the best lawyer. Given that fact, hire the meanest SOB you can find.

excon

I don't know that but I think u can get it.Good luck to you

What state are you in?

For instance, in Ohio if you purchased the home prior to the marriage it would be yours even if it was not paid off until after you were married. What you brought into the marriage is YOURS.

I bought the house myself in 1989. He joined me in 2003. We got married and re-financed. When we did he was added to the deed. Now 11 years later and divorce is eminent, I feel I should get more than half as I owned the house much longer that we owned the house.

What state are you living in

Division of property is subject to local laws and negotiation. ANY question on law needs to include your general locale as laws vary by area.

PA. Chester County

Hello again, nutty:

We did this already, didn't we? Please don't ask the same question again.

excon

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