I have -1.5 myopia and .5 astigmatism in one eye, but I only have -.5 myopia and .5 astigmatism in the other. The optometrist prescribed me glasses and told me I need to wear them, but I don't because I can see very well with both eyes so I don't see much of a difference with or without glasses. Is this bad/should I be wearing them or is he wrong? Thanks

Both lenses, that he has prescribed for you are different, and adjust your eyes accordingly. The lenses are correcting your vision, and if you don't want problems in the future, you should be wearing them as he suggested. Why would you feel a specialist is incorrrect? Why did you go to him in the first place if you don't believe what he helped you with?

In Canada we pay mega bucks for the service to have our eyes tested and prescribed (if we are not diabetics, diabetics are covered for eye care), so we know the value of this specialized service. Eye care, eye exams, special lenses and frames are all very expensive.

What did you pay ?

tick

Yes, what you think is "seeing good without them" is actually learning to make one eye dominate over the other which normally weakens the eye with lesser vision.

No one has the same prescription from one eye to the other, some will have clear lens in one eye,

So yes you use them