Does an informal IOU stand in court if the money was knowingly used for gambling?
Unbeknownst to me, my husband agreed to take a substantial sum of money (5K) from a friend for the sole purpose of trying to make the friend money gambling. I would have never agreed to this and never knew about it until it went south and the money was lost. There is supposedly an informal handwritten IOU (non-notorized) stating that my husband would pay back the money plus half of the earnings. I don't know if there was a time frame, etc. I have saved emails and one other friend who confirms that the original party knew that the money was to be used for this illegal (depending on the state, method of gambling, etc) purpose. Would a judge honor the informal IOU and force him to repay the money lost in this situation?