Hi all
http://i42.photobucket.com/albums/e316/K007/1c.gif
I'm probably missing something, it's not obvious that g(n) = O(f(n)) for all n (I don't see how 2^1000 boundaries of g(n) make any different here) ?
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Hi all
http://i42.photobucket.com/albums/e316/K007/1c.gif
I'm probably missing something, it's not obvious that g(n) = O(f(n)) for all n (I don't see how 2^1000 boundaries of g(n) make any different here) ?
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