My husband has worked for one company for the last 12 years. There are several stations in each state, for the last 6 yrs he has worked out of Missouri. He spoke with the station manager in Nebraska in July about transferring to that station at the start of the new season which would be March of this year. After speaking several times and the Nebraska station manager following up with the Missouri station manager it was agreed that he would begin up there this March. Today we were told that the main office has hired someone for the position that my husband was suppose to be getting and that he is now out of a job. Could this be considered a breach of contract on a verbal agreement?

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Originally Posted by moonshineal

... suppose to be getting ...

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It's "supposed to be getting". Sorry. Can't help myself some times. Common mistake. People hear the phrase all their lives, but since the "ed" precedes the "t" in the next word (and since the letters "d" and "t" sound nearly the same), they are unaware the "ed" is supposed to be there.

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Originally Posted by moonshineal

... Could this be considered a breach of contract on a verbal agreement?

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The problem is that, even if it is a breach of contract, the contract didn't say (I'm assuming) if your husband was guaranteed a job for any length of time, or what grounds the employer would need to terminate him. Therefore if, pursuant to that hypothetical contract, your husband showed up for the job and worked one second before being let go, he wouldn't be entitled to anything but pay for that one second.