No lease has been resigned by tenant and the water bill is included in the original lease agreement is the original agreement still valid if a month to month is never signed after the original agreement is up?

In some States - maybe most States - a lease converts (same terms) to month to month if the tenant does not vacate.

What State?

In Ohio is the last rental agreement still valid if tenant does not leave or sign another lease. The terms in the original states that the tenant is to pay the water. Is the tenant still responsible for the water?

I guess you didn't like my answer to your other post, same question?

Please stop asking the same question.

Yes, in Ohio unless the terms are renegotiated a written lease becomes a month-to-month rental agreement. If water was not included in the lease it's not included in the month-to-month rental.

The tenant is responsible.

Why would you think the terms would change? Verbal agreement?

First, if you have a follow-up question please use the Answer This Question options. Don't start a new thread. I've merged the threads for you.

As a general rule of law, when a lease expires, the terms of the lease remain in effect except for the term of the lease which now becomes periodic (month to month) and the rental amount, which can be raised. ALL other terms remain in effect.

So yes if the original lease had them paying for water, if and when it converts to month to month they still have to pay water.