I can't wrap my head around this.
Here is the situation. Homeowner and fence company enter into a contract which requires the homeowner to obtain a City permit. Fence company verbally agrees to obtain the permit on behalf of the homeowner, goes to City office (and admits he went to obtain permit) and learns that homeowner needs a variance before the homeowner can get a permit.
Fence company refuses to work with homeowner to get variance (marking survey, putting down stakes) unless homeowner pays additional charges. Obviously no variance, no permit.
Homeowner sues for return of deposit and fence company argues that contract REQUIRES homeowner to get permit, homeowner did not, homeowner has broken contract. (Permit is secondary to variance which homeowner cannot get without cooperation of contractor.)
Homeowner argues contractor broke contract by attempting to get permit on behalf of homeowner and homeowner could not fulfill buyers side of contract without cooperation of contractor - therefore, contract was voided by contractor, deposit should be returned.
Judge looks confused - and I'm not joking.
Any thoughts?