Why did the U.S. proclaim neutrality in WWII?

Probably a homework question, but what the heck?

For starters, we had no reason to engage in the war. Germany posed no threat to the U.S. Neither did the Japanese when they attacked the Chinese, although we disapproved. Remember also that the British and French (and Dutch and Belgians for that matter) were major colonial powers. Many Americans saw no difference between them and the Germans (German atrocities were not yet documented).
Also keep in mind that, even if America had felt inclined to fight, at the start of the war in Europe, America had a small army (18nth in size in the world) at the time that was woefully obsolete in many ways. The Navy was better off but hardly on a war footing.

And, finally, many saw no reason to get involved in another (mostly) European war. We had gotten involved in WW I and saw no reason to make that sacrifice again since it seemed to have been all in vain.

Well, they really wanted to stay out of the war altogether, thereby not burning any bridges, no matter who won. When pressure was applied, they started secretly providing the support to the Allies. After the bombing of Pearl Harbor, it really made no sense to simply declare war against the Japanese. So the following day, they declared war against the rest of the Axis powers.

Germany declared war on the USA after the Japanese bombed Pearl. Churchill knew the Japanese was going to bomb Pearl but didn't warn the US because he knew that when the attack took place it would bring the US into the fray and that Hitler was stupid enough to declare war on the US after the sneak attack on Pearl. Thus England would be guaranteed the US as an ally, for which he had been begging Roosevelt for months on end. The US had been isolationist since after WW1, seeing no advantages to being embroiled in yet another European conflict. They knew the Atlantic Ocean kept them safe from the Hun so were not worried about it. Then the Nipponese pulled their sneak attack on Pearl and Bob's your Uncle.

Yes, Hitler/Germany did declare war on the U.S. first. However, I'm not aware of any credible evidence that Churchill knew the attack on Pearl Harbor was coming. Lobstertrap, where did you get that information?

Thanks

British Intelligence in Japan had known as early as August 1942 that a Jap attack against america was imminent due to the oil embargo and thye fact that the Japs knew they had to eliminate the Yankees from the Pacific as a viable force before they could truly set in motion their plans for the Greater East Asia Co-Prosperity Sphere, and that wiping out the Yankee Aircraft Carrier's was the ultimate aim, and that Pearl was the habitat of said Carrier's. The point is that British Itelligence knew a Jap attack against America was imminent, almost certainly at Pearl, and that the Yanks were completely oblivious to it, which is not surprising, given their abominable Intelligence record historically. Rather than forward this Intelligence to Rosie, Winnie sat on his hands smiling and waiting, and sure enough, come Dec.7, his prayers were answered and the Japs struck, right at Pearl where the Brits knew it would be. Shortly thereafter the Brits and the Yankees were joint combatants in the War, thanks mainly to Hitlers unbelievable blunder in declaring War on the Yanks. If this had not happened it would have been the end for Britain,, Churchill knew this and that's why he failed to advise the Yanks of the coming Jap attack against their Pacific Fleet.. Not every book I have read on WW11 points out that Churchill knew of the coming Pearl attack, but a number I have read have done so. Perhaps you could Google it under something like "Churchill's prior knowledge of Pearl Harbour attack".

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Originally Posted by FlyYakker

Yes, Hitler/Germany did declare war on the U.S. first. However, I'm not aware of any credible evidence that Churchill knew the attack on Pearl Harbor was coming. Lobstertrap, where did you get that information?

Thanks

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Please see previous post.

I assume you mean August '41.

One could wonder why Churchill would try to warn Stalin, who was basically Hitler's ally at the time, of a pending attack by the Germans on Russia, but not warn his friend, and hoped for ally, Roosevelt of a pending Japanese attack. I always find conspiracy theories a bit shakey in that the logic is often not really sound. 20-20 hindsight often overlooks the fact that people did not have 20-20foresight. It's possible, of course. Churchill was an erratic genious, but it's an iffy theory. Googling, I get the "yes he did"s and "no he didn't"s that I pretty much expected. Who knows?

Keerect, that should have read August '41.