My son is an alcoholic, but has been dry for several years. He got a DWI and plead guilty to a class D felony. I would like to know why a convicted felon of a nonviolent crime can never own a firearm. I know it is the law, but what is the reasoning behind the law. There must be a court case that set precidence. Just curious. My son had an expensive antique gun collection. Now I have the guns. It doesn't seem fair.

This is a question for a discussion board - you are not asking for legal advice.

I have asked that this be moved.

A DWI as a felony? What were the circumstances?

Don't know what State OP and her son are in - in NY it's over a certain limit OR multiple offenses OR DUI/DWI involving personal injury.

For OP - the law has been tested. http://archive.newsmax.com/archives/...0/142436.shtml

In many States felons also cannot vote. I assume OP is not in one of those States - she would undoubtedly care more about losing the right to vote than the right to bear arms.

Laws are defined by court cases, laws are written by state or federal government.

It was written since normally those that would committ a crime to a level of a felony may often commit more crimes.

Also since this is discussion, I few DUI as a very violent crime, it kills more people every year than any armed robbery ever did.

The right to bear arms was meant for responsible citzens and for those that have proven irresponsible it is taken from them. Think about what your really asking.

Quote:

---

Originally Posted by califdadof3

The right to bear arms was meant for responsible citzens and for those that have proven irresponsible it is taken from them. Think about what your really asking.

---

Let me add that the right is taken from them by the Courts upon conviction of the felony. There have been cases which excluded collections from the prohibition, but only in certain states.