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If you're talking about the principle that a corporation is a legal entity separate and apart from its shareholders, then the answer to your question is yes. The only time it is not applied is when the courts "pierce the corporate veil" to prosecute individual shareholders.
That helps
Do a Google search for "Salomon v. Salomon" and you'll find hundreds of articles that explain it.
Thank you very much..
I'm sorry but I probably last read those cases over 20 years ago.
Have you read them yet? I'm sure that if you read the Salomon case and then the highlighted cases the similarities and differences will jump out at you.
May I suggest you read this guideline about homework help:
https://www.askmehelpdesk.com/arts-l...uncements.html
You appear to be asking us to do the work for you.
No
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