Years ago, I filed a child custody foreign judgement in Arizona after being advised to do so by an attorney. I filed all this on my own, not getting any sort of affidavits or permission from the original judge which from what I now understand I needed. I was also told that my court order could not be changed once I move this case. Once I filed the case in Arizona they changed everything about the case. What Im wondering is, since I never got these affidavits or anything like that to file this, are the changes they made legal and binding?

Not sure what you are referring to. But if you need get the results and documentation of a court case, just right the courthouse with the docket information.

Im wondering if because there was no affidavit or permission by the original judge to transfer the case to Arizona, if it was legal for the judge to make changes to the order in Arizona?

How do you know there was no change? Do you have all the records? Why does this concern you?

A court order is valid and standing until you go to that court or a court of proper jursidiction and have that order declared invlaid.

So if it issued a order, the parties may attempt to enforce it, and then the challenge to its validity can be done

Were all partes onformed of the new court dates when the changes were made ? Is there an interested party still in the state where the first order was created ?

I attented all court dates after I filed it as a foreign judgement in Arizona. I was under the assumption that the order could not be changed because the original judge did not give permission (authentication) to have it moved. Did the judge act illegally by allowing the changes to be made without authenticity?

Illegally is not the word here. The judge may have violated procedurally incorrectly. If so, its grounds for appeal.

That's what I needed to know... thank you