My fiancé and I bought a house together in June. Unfortunately, only my name is on the deed due to his recent real estate transaction. We split the monthly mortgage and utility bills. He recently broke up with me and moved all of his belongings out. I have records of his monthly deposits and emails to our realtor from him quoting "our" offer on the house. He is refusing to pay me anything going forward. I can not afford the house on my own. We had a verbal agreement with the house. Can he be forced to pay till we get the house sold?

You would have to sue him for his share. If you can prove the agreement, you should win the suit. Collecting may be another matter.

He is not on the deed you say, but is he on the mortgage?

A verbal agreement to "buy" a house is not enforceable, but a rental would be, but if he has moved out, then there is no "rent" to enforce.

It is not "our" offer unless his name is also part of the real estate paper work, offer and acceptance plus on the final deed.

Also his name on the "deed" even can not make him pay, it is whose name is listed on the mortgage.

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Originally Posted by cadiej

Can he be forced to pay till we get the house sold?

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Hello c:

No.

We also get questions from people on the other side, who ask us whether the partner can be made to sell the house so they can get their equity...

That answer is no, too.

excon