Would expect the value of acceleration (the slope) for the free falling dropped mass to be higher or lower than the acceleration due to gravity. Why? I thought lower because there was drag on the ticker tape in our experiement. Am I on the correct path??

If it's free-falling, the only force acting on it is the force due to gravity. Therefore, the acceleration will be exactly the acceleration due to gravity.

If it's falling through air, then there is an upward force on the mass due to the friction caused by the body with the air. When you try to calculate this, it enters the calculation as an additional upward frictional force rather than an acceleration (Did that make sense? Probably not.).

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Originally Posted by Perito

If it's free-falling, the only force acting on it is the force due to gravity. Therefore, the acceleration will be exactly the acceleration due to gravity.

If it's falling through air, then there is an upward force on the mass due to the friction caused by the body with the air. When you try to calculate this, it enters the calculation as an additional upward frictional force rather than an acceleration (Did that make sense? Probably not.).

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Thank-you Perito for your help