I just received a Foreclosure Complaint from my bank for my second home. I am past due on payments and am currently trying to sell the house. My question is why did my wife receive the same summons if she isn't on the deed and we weren't married when I bought the house? Is this something that I should be worried about as far as she's concerned?

Is she on the loan? Otherwise should should not have gotten served.

The bank is required to notify anyone who may have any possible legal rights to the house. Even though she is not on the deed or loan she may have what is called "dower" rights because the two of you are married. But if she's not on the deed or loan then you don't have to worry about her being responsible for any payments.

That's what I thought. Thank you for your quick response :-)