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My husband and I split up. We were still having a healthy sexual relationship, Now he applied for divorce, he gave wrong dates of separation, and said we have had no contact for 3 years, or slept with each other. That if you were having sex, and seeing each other you had to wait 2 years:o
Why would you have to wait longer if you are not having sex? It seems to me like it should be the other way around.
First please don't use text speech, use real words so we can understand you. I did not issue you a warning on this but will if you keep it up.
So you are having sex with your ex ( and you split up) he wants a divorce.
So sign the papers and get divorced, and get over it and move on,
The dates on the paperwork are there in case 3 months from now you discover you are pregnant.
In many states, when you fill out the birth certificate they will ask if you are currently or have been married for the last ~300 days. It is a paternity issue. They could force a pregnancy test instead, but this way is much less invasive.
From what I can understand the OP is saying the dates are wrong because he lied because even though they no longer live together they have been having sex within the past three years and have not been separated for 3 years.
Thank u so much for getting my question right...Quote:
Originally Posted by N0help4u
Legal separation has to do with residence and support, not dating. That is the concern when states have manditory separation periods.
Generally the dates listed on the paperwork are only used in situations like paternity. It seems as though you are splitting hairs over this and I don't think it matters much. Is there a reason for the concern?
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Your word against his, so get your divorce, and move on. Why on earth would you keep having sex with this many unresloved issues between you?
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