I've been married for 7 years but living together for 22.. Most things were accuired 15 years ago by us. Haven't bought much in the last 7. So he is saying nothing was purchased during the "marriage". But the money we spent years ago was ours. I worked for his company without getting paid all those years. Thinking it was for our future but now he says its his money. Can they not give me anything because it wasn't purchased during the last 7 years of actually "marriage". We were common law as far as I was concerned 22 years ago?
