Hello. I have posted on here before regarding that my now ex partner had been receiving masturbation from prostitutes. My last pap smear two months ago showed that I have the hpv virus. I got my other tests back today and I also have chlamydia, for which my doctor has given me antibiotics. My ex partner does not have chlamydia though... I even saw his results on paper. Prior to being with him, I was only ever with one man for 13 years. I did not have any sexual contact with anyone else for 3 yrs until meeting my recent ex and during that time I had tested negative for std's. I don't understand how this can happen. He is telling me that I must have had it already and my doctor said that it is impossible for him to have given it to me and just 'cleared' it by himself. Does anyone know how this can happen?