Hello. I have posted on here before regarding that my now ex partner had been receiving masturbation from prostitutes. My last pap smear two months ago showed that I have the hpv virus. I got my other tests back today and I also have chlamydia, for which my doctor has given me antibiotics. My ex partner does not have chlamydia though... I even saw his results on paper. Prior to being with him, I was only ever with one man for 13 years. I did not have any sexual contact with anyone else for 3 yrs until meeting my recent ex and during that time I had tested negative for std's. I don't understand how this can happen. He is telling me that I must have had it already and my doctor said that it is impossible for him to have given it to me and just 'cleared' it by himself. Does anyone know how this can happen?

If you have chlamydia and have had no other sexual partners, then I believe it is impossible for your ex not to have it. He may have been tested before there was enough bacteria present to substantiate a positive test.

Your doctor is correct. It is impossible for him to give it to you and then have it clear up on its own.

Please check out the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Website on this disease. Please click this link.

There are a couple of different tests for chlamydia - and the technique of performing the test can be important. It may be the type of test he had done or the way it was performed. False negative tests are more likely than false positive ones - particularly in males. A single "negative" exam does not necessarily mean a person is 'chlamydia free'. Other things may have an influence too - perhaps he took a course of antibiotics (for some other condition) that cleared the chlamydia too. Serial testing - along with an accurate medical history -would be more more accurate in establishing "true" positive or "true" negative results...