I found out my fiancé was in rear ended an auto accident about 9 months ago. Neither party called the police but exchanged info. Neither did she report it to her insurance company.
The driver made and signed a written statement that she was at fault. The only damage was to the other party's vehicle. My fiancé went to the ER a day later due to pain throughout her body which has continued to the present. To make a long story short the insurance company offered her a $5200.00 settlement of which $4900.00 she is suppose to pay for the medical treatments she received.
Since there was no police report but a signed statement by the driver as to being at fault. If she has to be taken to court, is the statement as valid as a police report due to her admitting being at fault?
Why would she have to pay the medical bills when she wasn't at fault and the other driver is fully insured?