If I have fulfilled a 1 year lease, and it states it has expired, and continue living in the home for a verbal month-to-month with no stipulations, am I responsible for the whole months rent if I notified the owner with a 35 day notice that I would be moving out before the end of the next month?

Your wording is somewhat confusing, so I'm going to type out an example of what I believe it is you're asking:
You gave your landlord 35-day notice of vacancy on February 1st and moved out March 7th. You want to know if you're liable to pay rent for the entire month of March, even though you didn't reside in the apartment for the full month. The answer is yes. You should have moved out at the end of month, not the middle of the next one.