x-husband defaulting on divorce decree
My former spouse agreed to pay me 25% (net) of his pending worker's comp claim in our divorce decree. However, he was successful in turning his "pending" comp claim into (2) separate back injuries to keep from paying me an extra $20,000.00. He did this by claiming he "reinjured his back 60 days after our divorce was final.
Any advice on this one? I have sought 4 attorneys who will not touch this. Two of them were divorce attorneys who stated they are not well versed in worker's comp claims. And the 3rd one (worker's comp lawyer) stated he doesn't like to get involved with divorce cases on the basis of their ugliness. And the 4th one stated that beings 3 attorneys before him shot me down doesn't even wish to give me the time of day saying there has to be a solid reason why they won't take this so he believes he probably wouldn't win & make a dime.
Presently I am considering handling this myself. Should I file for a Petition for Rule to Show Cause... what exactly am I doing? I am unfamilar with taking a person to court & the processes. What happens when I file this document? [I know how to obtain this document.]
My divorce states, "The net recovery which the petitioner rcvs on his WCC will be defined as the full amt of comp awarded to petitioner including any pymts to be made over time, less any amts required to be reimbursed for disability pymts already rcvd, petitioner's attorney fees and costs directly associted with the prosecution of his WCC,"
Thanks for any assistance in this matter!
Sandy