A gal I work with just got arrested for Probation Violation (don't know what she was on probation for) and Theft 1 - no bail was set. I've read about people who do (it seems) far worse and get bail... why would this be the case? Is it because of the parole violation or is theft 1 more serious than I know? Thanks in advance for any assistance I receive.

Because we have a messed up justice system basically.
But a lot depends on her priors and the details of the theft 1

Yes, she could get bail for the theft, it is the parole violation that will put a freeze on her bail. Since she was already put on probation and now messed up, ( sort of showing they don't plan on changing) they have to appear before the old judge now for them to decide if they have to go back to jail on the FIRST conviction. Then they have to still latter deal with the issues of the new charge.
If the judge on the probation violation allows her to go back onto probation, then the freeze on bail will be allowed and she will be able to bail out.

Since she was arrested for a probation violation, there is no bail for that. She will have to wait in jail until her probation violation hearing.

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Originally Posted by Fr_Chuck

yes, she could get bail for the theft, it is the parole violation that will put a freeze on her bail. Since she was already put on probation and now messed up, ( sorta showing they don't plan on changing) they have to appear before the old judge now for them to decide if they have to go back to jail on the FIRST conviction. Then they have to still latter deal with the issues of the new charge.
If the judge on the probation violation allows her to go back onto probation, then the freeze on bail will be allowed and she will be able to bail out.

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Thank you - Makes sense to me now!! I appreciate it.