Object to discharge of debt; chapter 7 bankruptcy
My apologies for the long story, but I want to make sure all the information is included to get the most accurate answer:
A few years ago, we had some customers who ran up a large bill for auto repair on their van. We were allowing them to make payments on it. They did well for a while but eventually quit making payments altogether.
One day, the wife called and left a message saying that her husband had died but that she would pay us off as soon as possible. We gave her a few months to grieve but then called her again after no payments had been made. She stated that she would be receiving a settlement from her husband's estate and that she would be in as soon as she received the money. A few more weeks went by and we tried to call her again but her number was disconnected.
We finally found out that she had moved in with her new boyfriend and called their house. We learned that instead of paying us as she had agreed, she traded in the vehicle which she still owed us money for and bought herself a new SUV. When we finally got a hold of her, she agreed to meet with us. She came to our business and signed a document stating that she would make a certain amount of payments, minimum of $200.00, until the balance was paid in full. She gave us her SSN, DL number, phone number, etc. She did very well for the first year; then she started to fall behind on payments again.
We hadn't received anything from her in over a year and she wouldn't return our calls, so we turned her in to collections. We just recently received a letter stating that she is trying to file for Chapter 7 bankruptcy.
So I have 2 questions:
1) She had plenty of money to pay her bills with; she just chose not to do so. By depleting the settlement she received upon her husband's death, would that be considered "failure to explain satisfactorily any loss of assets" which would then prevent her from being granted the bankruptcy?
2) She signed invoices which clearly stated that there was a mechanic's lien on the vehicle until paid in full. By selling the van that she still owed us money for, would that be considered "fraudulently transferring...property that would have become part of the estate"?