I and my husband built a house in 2001. We both signed the first papers I thought those were the final papers. However, when house finished he signed the final papers by himself -i had at that time some health issues and did not know that I do have to sign the final papers in order to be owner of the house too- any way, after a few month I found a paper in my husband office stating that he took me of the house ownership. Now, the deed has just my husband name. My question is: do I still be an owner of the house according of Pennsylvania law even though my name is not in the deed. And is my husband can sell or do anything the house without my consent?

Thank you for your time

Welcome to AMHD. If your husband is the sole owner, he can sell the property to whomever, whenever, for whatever. In case of divorce, it is an open question because spouses have rights, even in PA.

You can ask him to correct this error by merely adding you to the deed, this is easy to do with a quitclaim deed.

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Originally Posted by George_1950

Welcome to AMHD. If your husband is the sole owner, he can sell the property to whomever, whenever, for whatever. In case of divorce, it is an open question because spouses have rights, even in PA.

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I would ask him about it - he can then either say it's a mistake and add you or you'll know you could have problems in the future.

Perhaps he has a logical explanation but at the moment it is his house, you have to claim to it. Of course, if you ever get divorced, then the Court will have to decide based on several factors.

Were you married when you built the house or did he own it/build it prior to the marriage?