Originally Posted by pacific nw
I bought a house in Sept 2001 as an investment property. The person I bought it from wanted to continue living there so I rented it out to her. I have put the house on the market and she now claims that we had an "Oral Agreement" for her to rebuy the house. This wasn't the case, but without getting into the particulars...
How do you "prove" there never was an Oral Agreement.
Yes, they are enforceable in my state. Her attorney has filed a Lis Pendens. (If you don't know what a Lis Pendens is, you can't answer the question properly :-}