If someone comes in requesting you to send information to someone else and you don't have the patient sign a written consent is this against HIPAA policy, especially if what you sent was only generalities and no medical specifics? It was only done to give the patient more time to accomplish something. I was considered in violation of HIPAA rules because I did not get a written consent and ASSUMED his verbal was adequate. Thanks

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Originally Posted by lkk

If someone comes in requesting you to send information to someone else and you don't have the patient sign a written consent is this against HIPAA policy, especially if what you sent was only generalities and no medical specifics? It was only done to give the patient more time to accomplish something. I was considered in violation of HIPAA rules because I did not get a written consent and ASSUMED his verbal was adequate. Thanks

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Yes, it's contrary to HIPAA which specifically requires a signed consent. That way there is no misunderstanding concerning what was requested. HIPAA is all about paperwork and a paper trail.