Situation: Ten days ago, my boyfriend had a headache for three days that he couldn't get rid of. He took a lorcet that was prescribed to me almost three years ago (out of a prescription of 20, there are still 16 in the bottle).

Yesterday, while on a secondary interview, he was advised he'd have to take a follicle drug test. We never even considered this ramification when he originally took the pill - didn't seem like drug abuse at the time.

My question is this: Other than ibuprofen, this one Lorcet is the only opiate in his system. His hair is relatively close cut. What are the chances that this will affect the results of his drug screen. Is it a positive/negative situation no matter what levels of the opiate they find, or do trace amounts not appear?

Should he advise them that he took the pill even though the prescription was not in his name?

Thank you in advance!

He should advise the drug screener that he took a prescription drug for a painful headache. He does not have to say that the script was not in his name. He should simply offer up the info. In cases like this its better to say what you took then hide it. Plus its not like he's been doing cocaine he took one prescription pill for what sounds like a killer headache.

This one is a hard call as the medication was so old it and has most likely expired. So, in all honesty this is a hit or miss situation. Chances are since it was only one, and it is so old, that it will not show up on the test.

BTW, throw the rest away, they are expired now and can either have no effect whatsoever, or be potentially dangerous.