I'm just new to this topic and I actually believe that I know how to speak in tongues in the personal sense but not in a corpral way. I asked a friend of mind about how you can tell the difference and what the purposes are, she said that one is for personal and another is for someone else. Although I have found many times when she is praying in tongues either way she is doing it for both purposes and I don't get it.
1. Speaking in tongues ~ A personal prayer language made for the soul purpose of praying to God when you don't know what to say or in praise and worship. Though I don't doubt my friend she seems to be very close to God, I have never seen any scripture to back this definition up.
2. Speaking in tongues ~ A gift of the spirit given to a chosen few which makes no care to personal need but is rather for someone else. This sense of the clich requires another vessel who has the gift of interpretation. This is for the sole purpose of showing who we are it is to be used in public and never by women in the church. I have seen scripture to back up this teaching and I believe in this very much too.
The problem is these two defintions can not be talking about the same thing they don't align with each other. Where is the scriputure to back up either of these? I need some real Bible experts here! Please and thanks.