My nephew is currently in prison for violation of probation. He's serving 3 years and gets out in March. He is now saying that he shouldn't have been arresed for violation since his probation expired on 9/24/04 and he was violated on 10/31/04. Is this even possible? He was arresed on 11/30/04 after his court hearing. Is there something he's not saying? Any opinion/advice would be greatly appreciated!