Can anyone provide a quote from the Bible where it is stated that unbelievers are condemned to hell for eternal punishment?

The quote must contain the following:
1- "Unbelievers", not a word that may or not mean Unbelievers.
2- "Condemned", a euphemism meaning the exact same thing is acceptable. NOTE: "Perish", for example, does NOT have the same meaning.
3- "Hell", an equivalent word for an afterlife for unbelievers is acceptable.
4- "Eternal punishment", both words are necessary, OR an absolute equivalent.

If you believe this saying without providing proof, please explain why you believe it. Thank you.

How are "perish" and "condemned" different in meaning?

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Originally Posted by jlisenbe

How are "perish" and "condemned" different in meaning?

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"Perish" means to die, cease to exist. "Condemned" means to pronounce judgement unfavorably, to censure, to sentence (often to death or life imprisonment).

So when it says in John 3:16, "so that whoever believes and trusts in Him [as Savior] shall not perish, but have eternal life," does the word "perish" in that text have the same meaning of "to die, cease to exist", so as to mean that those who do not believe in Christ are in danger of dying and ceasing to exist?

If it does, then that means our language has changed and the meaning of "perish" has narrowed over the last couple of centuries.
But I'm not so sure "perish" carries that narrow of a meaning.

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Originally Posted by jlisenbe

So when it says in John 3:16, "so that whoever believes and trusts in Him [as Savior] shall not perish, but have eternal life," does the word "perish" in that text have the same meaning of "to die, cease to exist", so as to mean that those who do not believe in Christ are in danger of dying and ceasing to exist?

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The meaning that you refer to - "... so that those who do not believe in Christ are in danger of dying and ceasing to exist?" is not warranted by the words in context.

The simplest explanation to your question is that the quote does not address unbelievers directly so the words cannot be used to definitively describe what happens to those who do not believe. Occam's Razor.

Secondly, there are dozens of uses of the word "perish" in the Bible. Only once does it carry the connotation of eternal punishment and that usage is clearly noted as metaphorical - i.e, not to be taken literally.

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The meaning that you refer to - "... so that those who do not believe in Christ are in danger of dying and ceasing to exist?" is not warranted by the words in context.

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The text reads, "that whosoever believeth on him should not perish, but have eternal life." Plainly it is talking about people who are perishing who, through believing on Jesus, will have eternal life rather than perish. So who is it who is going to perish, and what does it mean that they "should not perish"? Does it mean they will cease to exist?

And if you go on to look at verse 18, Jesus changes the verb from "perish" to "judged". Same people, but a different verb, so is "perish" being used in the sense of someday facing judgement?

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Originally Posted by jlisenbe

...so is "perish" being used in the sense of someday facing judgement?

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You ask a question, I reply, no acknowledgment from you, you ask another question.
I reply again, no acknowledgement from you, you go on to ask yet another question.

We've already played this game on the Current Events page.

How about you just lay out what you're trying to say and then we can all proceed from there, including any Bible scholars aboard to keep us straight.

Even better, how about just answering the question that started this thread? Thank you.

Your reply was clouded in obscurity. When you say, "The simplest explanation to your question is that the quote does not address unbelievers directly so the words cannot be used to definitively describe what happens to those who do not believe," it is a ridiculous assertion and is, in fact, no explanation at all. Belief in Jesus is the entire point of John 3:16 and is presented as the solution to perishing. So the question remains, what do you believe THIS scripture is referring to when it makes the clear reference to perishing? Why are you reluctant to answer???

The original question:

Can anyone provide a quote from the Bible where it is stated that unbelievers are condemned to hell for eternal punishment?

Essentially, it was just done. "Whosoever believeth in Him shall not perish." Now if we just think about this, the very plain implication is that those who do not believe are perishing, but through faith in Christ the perishing are rescued. Even more so when verse 18 is added. "Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because they have not believed in the name of God's one and only Son."

Now once you figure out what it means to "perish" or to be "condemned", you'll have your answer.

Might want to refer to Rev. chapter 20 for a little help.

Perish = temporal death?
Perish = eternal death?

Eternal death = oblivion?
Eternal death = hellfire?

Would a loving God condemn to eternal death those who are mentally or psychologically or emotionally ill and can't love Him in return or love others?

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Originally Posted by jlisenbe

Your reply was clouded in obscurity. When you say, "The simplest explanation to your question is that the quote does not address unbelievers directly so the words cannot be used to definitively describe what happens to those who do not believe," it is a ridiculous assertion and is, in fact, no explanation at all. ??

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I suggest you look up "Occam's Razor". That may help you understand what is meant here.

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Originally Posted by Wondergirl

Would a loving God condemn to eternal death those who are mentally or psychologically or emotionally ill and can't love Him in return or love others?

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WG, you make a very good point - the essential point. And, I would add, what about those who never heard of him?

I have never seen a rational answer to the question even after years of seeing it asked on the internet. The Catholics had something like it in a less rational time about a thousand years ago when they declared there was "no salvation outside the Catholic Church". They have long since discarded such a strange notion.

The Fundamentalists picked it up again during the late 19th century where it remains to this day believed among a handful of extreme Christians far from the mainstream.

Curiously, it is similar to fundamentalist Islamic belief in Allah where infidels are forbidden Paradise. It probably originates via a misunderstanding of the "Old Testament" Hebrew scriptures where God is portrayed as a "Jealous God".

Revealing is jlisenbe's original question on these pages where he inquires whether a woman, being a woman, is Biblically eligible for a Church position as a Sunday School leader. If a simple question like that has to be asked in the year 2018, there is not much hope that he will discard such a far stranger position as the condemnation of unbelievers to eternal punishment in hell.

I contend that the answer is to be found in the psyche of people like jlisenbe who need to strike out at a world unsatisfactory to them. This is done by assigning all others who believe differently to a horrific afterlife and, worse, to ascribe such a horrendous belief to God - in such a case, a monstrous God, hardly the loving God cited by WG.

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I suggest you look up "Occam's Razor". That may help you understand what is meant here.

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Already understand the concept. It actually invalidates your idea.

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Revealing is jlisenbe's original question on these pages where he inquires whether a woman, being a woman, is Biblically eligible for a Church position as a Sunday School leader. If a simple question like that has to be asked in the year 2018, there is not much hope that he will discard such a far stranger position as the condemnation of unbelievers to eternal punishment in hell.

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If you would trouble yourself for two seconds, you would find that I did not ask that question.

Unsurprisingly, you still are unwilling to answer the simple question of what is meant by "perish" and "condemn" in the context of the John 3 passage.

Your reply above reveals the problem. You want to understand scripture in light of modern day sensibilities. I try to never consider what this current culture might believe when attempting to understand scripture. Cultural beliefs come and go, but the truth of God's word will stand permanently. If that is not true, then why would anyone care what the Bible says?

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I contend that the answer is to be found in the psyche of people like jlisenbe who need to strike out at a world unsatisfactory to them.

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The only person striking out at others is you. Perhaps you are frustrated at being unable to answer simple questions, or perhaps you are plainly aware of what scripture says and simply don't like it.

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Would a loving God condemn to eternal death those who are mentally or psychologically or emotionally ill and can't love Him in return or love others?

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When I read your question, I immediately thought of the demon possessed man from Gadera. Still, your question is a valid one. I would think that God will judge people based upon their capabilities. None of that, of course, has any bearing on the meanings of perish and condemn.

I am convinced that the answer to many of your questions is found in the first chapter of Romans.

Why would a loving -- and omniscient -- God give mankind free will?

Will we have free will in heaven?

Why do you believe God is loving and omniscient?

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Originally Posted by jlisenbe

Why do you believe God is loving and omniscient?

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I used the article "a".

OK. So do you believe the God we are speaking of is loving and omniscient? If so, why?

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Originally Posted by jlisenbe

OK. So do you believe the God we are speaking of is loving and omniscient? If so, why?

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That's what the Bible tells us. Do I believe it? Yes. So, back to my question: Why did He give mankind free will, knowing mankind would make bad choices? Are we characters in a huge reality show? (Reminds me of the novel, New Year Island by Paul Draker.)