My husband works as a phone tech for a communications company in Texas. He was told that his computer system needs to be running exactly when his shift starts. It takes about 20 minutes to get his system up and running in the programs he is supposed to be using. During that 20 minutes on every shift, he has to arrive early to start his computer, but does NOT get paid. Is is fair? He is 'working' when he is getting the computer started up. Should he also not be getting paid for this??

No, they can not require him to work without being clocked in. If he has to be there 20 min early, then they are requiring him to be there.
He needs to talk to the human resourse department.

What a cheap way for this company to get work out of your husband without paying for it. Yes, have him check with Human Resources on this. If that does not help him, perhaps he can call your state's labor department and ask there. Good luck to your husband.

Hello K:

It's probably the Human Resourse Department that is requiring it.

He's entitled to be paid for the 20 minutes. If that 20 minutes extra time every work day causes his hours to go above 40 for the week, he's entitled to OVERTIME for those hours. Plus, he's entitled to every minute he's ALREADY put in, and I don't know how far back that goes. Plus, ALL the other people are entitled to be paid for their work also.

This is going to be a pretty tidy sum. I don't know if they're going to just write a check because you walked in to their office. Of course, they should, but companies aren't too smart. If they don't, I'd visit a lawyer right away.

excon