Say a dr writes two prescriptions one month and only assumes they wrote one. And say you held onto that script because, well lets face it, doctors are expensive and it's a nice safety net to hold onto. My question is, since he wrote both of them, is it illegal to get the second one filled at my usual pharmacy that I get anything else filled at. Meaning it won't overlap too early or something like that. And it is within the 6 months that a script like that is good for. Let me say that the reason I would even think about this is that its expensive to go to some doctors. The doctor should have not been such a space cadet really. Lets say that this doctor forgets and writes other peoples names on other scripts and people have had to go back and get it fixed