My husband was in the hospital back in May and the physician is billing me for this. I just got a collection notice because the bill hasn't been paid. I kept asking my husband to call the billing office and explain to them that he is the patient and he should be the one being billed, not me. He never called. The collection notice states that if payment in full is not received within 39 days, it will be turned over the credit bureau. Is it a HIPPA violation for them to be billing me and not my husband? I know that if I called to discuss his services, the office would not talk to me because that is a HIPPA violation. Does this fall under the same category? Thank you.

Did your husband name you as the responsible party when he was hospitalized? If so, that's probably why you got the bill.

Why doesn't he just pay it?

Is he covered under your insurance?

No its not a HIPAA violation unless his diagnoses and treatment is part of the billing. Even then it is iffy.

I can not fully answer your question because we do not know the details of his service on the bill or if your husband signed off on you as a party to have his information shared with on the HIPPA form

You are married and presumably live together. When this goes to collections and eventually a court judgment, the judge won't care which of you it was.
You might have a slim chance of a HIPAA violation depending on what you signed when he was in the hospital, but I doubt it. And HIPAA won't award you any damages if you didn't sign any papers, and they have a tendency to deny close to 99% of all reports.