In my separation agreement my soon to be x signed over the title to the house in lieu of child support payments. At the same time his x had a judgment for back child support placed on the house. This was done days before the agreement became official. I didn't know about or I wouldn't have signed this agreement. It was a default judgment. And husband isn't doing anything about it either. My state is Colorado. My question is - If the title is in my name, what is xwife entitled to? Could all of the equity (this is a large sum of money-more that the house is worth!)be taken to satify this judgement? What happens to my soon to be x? Is there any way I can protect my equity?Can

Did you two own the house free and clear, no mortgage?

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Originally Posted by ballengerb1

Did you two own the house free and clear, no mortgage??

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There is a mortgage.

Is his name still on the mortgage?

No his name is not.

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Originally Posted by besart

...If the title is in my name, what is xwife entitled to?

Could all of the equity (this is a large sum of money-more that the house is worth!)be taken to satify this judgement?

What happens to my soon to be x?

Is there any way I can protect my equity?

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It appears that you want to be able to prove that she knew about the imminent separation agreement before she recorded her judgment. It would be arguable that she is not a bona fide purchaser without notice (if that is a valid defense in Colorado).