Hi Tom,
Thanks for the correction my American history is rather poor. However, my wrong example doesn't change the substance of my argument.
We can pick any point we like in the historical process and claim that point represents true original intent. I am saying that someone else can pick a different point and claim that point to be the actual original intent. There is absolutely nothing wrong with me going right back to the beginning and claim that the original intent can be found in the formulation of natural laws and these natural laws only apply to individuals. This point is as valid as any other point in history.
When SCOTUS hands down a decision some people want to complain that this is judicial activism. Legislation from the bench if you like.
However, when SCOTUS hands down a decision from the bench they agree with,these very same people agree that it is within the keeping of the letter of the law, the spirit of the law and original intent.
This is tantamount to saying that sometimes SCOTUS hands down decisions that suit my politics and at other times it hands down decisions that are against my political views.
How does restricting freedom of speech promote freedom of speech? Glad you asked that question. I can out line my argument in relation to access speech versus content of speech, but first I will make a few comments in relation to substantive due process and procedural due process.
You seem to be saying that corporations have no legal rights unless they have the opportunity to access a civil code. What is the basis of your argument for this position?
Tut