Originally Posted by
TUT317
Hi Tom,
I think we have been down this path before. You seem to be using Originalism and Original Intent as being one and the same. This is not a valid comparison. However, leaving that aside
You say:
"......interstate commerce was pretty much a free trade zone". Is this an example of clear language? How would you define, pretty much?
I don't think the Commerce Clause is an example of clear and precise language. In fact I don't think we can go past the word, 'commerce' before we run into trouble. You have an exact definition for the word, 'commerce?'
Before you throw in Humpty Dumpty in will repeat my previous argument. Those who control the language control the reality. In this particular instance, and every other, those who control the language are the people of that particular age.
The people who control the language of this age are the general public. Or what, reasonable people understand by the meaning of words. People of a different age would have had a sightly different meaning for the word. It is possible that 'commerce' as it applied to the past may prove to be incompatible or even a contradiction when examined in light of today's meaning.
Tut