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List some specific examples. Say, five??? And bear in mind that we're not concerned about interpretations since that is all subjective at some level, but rather translation errors.Quote:
there have been mistranslations and misinterpretations galore, many deliberate, some horrific, depending on the translators' and interpreters' motivations.
There are five flawed translation techniques: etymology, internal structure, cognates, old mistranslations, and misunderstood metaphors. Examples as per your request:Quote:
Originally Posted by jlisenbe
1. Arsenokoitēs
2. Acts 12:4 (KJV) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.
3. I John 5:7-8 The latter part of verse 7 and the first part of verse 8 did not exist until they were inserted into the Vulgate.
4. Revelation 1:11 does not appear in any of the ancient Greek texts.
5. The Red Sea.
We have Jesus/Bible.
What we have today is the written and living Word of God.
You are in Error if you think God has allowed the living Word to be corrupted.
Believing God would give his Son/Word and then throw a monkey wrench in the mix?
I thought God gave man free will! Of course, mankind can change and even corrupt when translating and reprinting God's Word -- and has, both accidentally AND deliberately. The original texts no longer exist, so then what?Quote:
Originally Posted by waltero
Then I guess you believe using your own understanding.
For me, I believe the Bible is God's Word. The same today as yesterday.
The living word given to us by God himself.
Nothing has been lost in translation.
God/Bible can not be corrupted.
God didn't just Drop the Bible in our laps and head out.
God with us = Bible
Any other understanding would just create confusion.
Believing God isn't able to preserve his Word.
Apparently, you haven't done any serious Bible study or compared the many versions. Yes, the Bible itself is God's Word, but we have only translations now, not the original manuscripts.Quote:
Originally Posted by waltero
We have the Bible translation in the life of Jesus.
Consider the translations better than the original? The word of God none the less.
Trust in God.
I trust God has provided his word.
The translations have been corrupted here and there. Misunderstandings have resulted. Which translation do you use?Quote:
Originally Posted by waltero
No one has seen the originals for millennia.Quote:
Consider the translations better than the original?the word of God none the less.
Trust in God.
No evidence whatsoever that the word is not translated properly to "homosexual". Your desire for it to be so does not count.Quote:
1. Arsenokoitēs
The other four examples have no real significance and do not affect any major doctrine of scripture. In no way do they fit your description of, "mistranslations and misinterpretations galore, many deliberate, some horrific, depending on the translators' and interpreters' motivations." Perhaps your comment was more directed at "misinterpretations"?Quote:
2. Acts 12:4 (KJV) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.
3. I John 5:7-8 The latter part of verse 7 and the first part of verse 8 did not exist until they were inserted into the Vulgate.
4. Revelation 1:11 does not appear in any of the ancient Greek texts.
5. The Red Sea.
Your example #3 is far from certain.
Your example #4 is a moot point. It pertains, as you should know, to only the first words of the verse, and not to the entire verse. It is translated correctly in practically all modern translations. You should also know that, "It should be noted that the phrases "Alpha and Omega," "the first and the last," and/or "the beginning and the end" are found in the original texts of Rev. 1:8, 1:17, 2:8, 21:6, and 22:13."
Which is true for ALL ancient works. The textual evidence for the correct transmission is the NT is better than for any other work of antiquity.Quote:
No one has seen the originals for millennia.
It was not translated as "homosexual" until 1946 in the RSV. Paul had coined the term and was referring to men who molest young boys, i.e., child molesters, pedophiles.Quote:
Originally Posted by jlisenbe
A perfect example of your idolization of a book. Try to understand what you read.Quote:
Originally Posted by jlisenbe
It's simple to figure out. Here it is - I do NOT believe Jesus sends millions of humanity to hell for eternal punishment. Now THAT wasn't hard to figure out, was it?Quote:
Originally Posted by jlisenbe
Nice try but it won't work. Practically all modern translations render the word as "homosexual" or some synonym of the word as do all modern concordances and all major Greek lexicons. And prior to 1946, the word was rendered "abusers of themselves with mankind", which hardly gives you any help. So to say that your position is a minority one would be a dramatic understatement of your situation.Quote:
It was not translated as "homosexual" until 1946 in the RSV. Paul had coined the term and was referring to men who molest young boys, i.e., child molesters, pedophiles.
You must be a lot older than I thought to be able to state what Paul was referring to by the use of the word. Did he tell you that?
"That word is an unusual word. It’s a new word; we don’t know of any other instances of the word until Paul coins the word in 1 Corinthians 6 and 1 Timothy 1. It’s a compound word: “arsen” means man and “koite” or “koitas” or “koitai”—depending on a verb or a noun—means bed. It’s men who bed with other men.
It’s quite clear that Paul has coined this word from Leviticus 18 and 20. Even if you don’t know any Greek, you could find online or pull up the Greek transliteration of these two verses. Look at the Septuagint, which is the Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible, and then just look at the Greek for the necessary passage in Leviticus 18 and Leviticus 20 and you'll see there (and in fact the words are right next to each other in Leviticus 20) this word for man (“arsen”) and the word for bed (“koitai” or “koite”).
Paul is quite deliberately pulling from the Torah to make this new word. So he has in his mind all that was written in the Old Testament. And that’s part of the reason why we can’t just say, “Well Leviticus has a lot of strange things and so we shouldn’t pay attention to Leviticus.” Because Paul is explicitly drawing this teaching into the New Testament to coin this word which, given the context in Leviticus and how it’s used elsewhere after the New Testament, means men having sex with other men. And there is no real other interpretation that makes the best sense of the evidence both in the early Christian literature and especially in the Old Testament."
https://www.crossway.org/articles/wh...nokoitai-mean/
I find the word arsen interesting in this context as arse today refers to the posterior, that which the homosexual seeks
And the pedophile....Quote:
Originally Posted by paraclete
So straight people who engage in anal sex are what exactly?
QUOTE] - I do NOT believe Jesus sends millions of humanity to hell for eternal punishment[/QUOTE]
So you understand there is a place called Hell?
Why would an all loving God allow somebody to suffer for one day (eternity is irrelevant)?
Should a Christian understand that God would allow his word (the word that we put our faith in) to be corrupted and looked on with doubt?
Is one denomination more Christian than another? Is one Bible interpolation more God than another?
I know! I was thinking about that very thing!Quote:
Originally Posted by talaniman
So you understand there is a place called Hell?Quote:
Originally Posted by waltero
Why would an all loving God allow somebody to suffer for one day (eternity is irrelevant)?
Should a Christian understand that God would allow his word (the word that we put our faith in) to be corrupted and looked on with doubt?
Is one denomination more Christian than another? Is one Bible interpolation more God than another?
These are eternal questions, usually posed by those who don't believe and therefore face damnation
deviant and equally condemnedQuote:
Originally Posted by Wondergirl
I think the Creator has a sense of humor watching humans figure it out.
It's not the manner in which two people have sex that counts. It's the gender of the two people that counts, and then whether or not they are married. All pretty clear for those who take the time to read.
At any rate, this statement (there have been mistranslations and misinterpretations galore, many deliberate, some horrific, depending on the translators' and interpreters' motivations.) has fallen by the wayside as well it should have. There are no "horrific" mistranslations.
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