It is your contention that Jesus sends unbelievers to hell for eternal punishment. It is up to you to show where the Bible says that. If the Bible never said that, how could the Bible be quoted as not saying what it never said? Think about that. I'm only trying to help.
DW's opinion is that of a scholar who has studied the issue. Your position shown below is far weaker than DW's.Quote:
Your opinion is not held everywhere.
Note that Jl's citations include "probably", possibly" and are misleading by referring to fragments as manuscripts as though the fragments are complete mss. See next.Quote:
we have several manuscripts from within a century of the completion of the NT. To be sure, these manuscripts (all but one of which are papyri) are all fragmentary,.....These manuscripts include P52 (100-150), P90, 104 (2nd century), P66 (c. AD 175-225), P46, 64+67 (c. AD 200), P77, P103, 0189 (2nd or 3rd century), P98 (2nd century?). These ten manuscripts are the extent of those that the Institut für neutestamentliche Textforschung has identified as possibly or definitely from the second century.
In addition to these, there are a few other candidates. Comfort and Barrett argue for at least half a dozen other manuscripts as possibly from the 2nd century.2 ....... the date they suggest for P4 (second century) is probably correct in light of some recent work done by T. C. Skeat of the British Library,3 and the date they offer for P32 (late second century) is quite possible. In addition, renowned papyrologist Herbert Hunger considered P66 to be from no later than the middle of the second century.4 The original editors of P75 also thought this manuscript should be dated late second to early third century.5This means that there are at least ten and as many as thirteen NT MSS6 that are possibly or definitely from the second century."
Fragments are NOT complete manuscripts. That should be prominently noted - it was NOT.Quote:
I'm also pretty sure you realize that manuscript fragments are frequently simply referred to as "manuscripts"
Now you're agreeing with me - almost. Change "vast" to "all", and you have the truth.Quote:
The vast majority of early manuscripts are incomplete.
Because that is the major and only point of contention - that the verse in question was not in any of the fragments/manuscripts cited.Quote:
I have no idea why you want to make an issue out of that.
Wrong. No one claimed the author of Matthew used Jerome as a source. It was was the other way around.Quote:
At any rate, the point was that Matthew greatly predates Jerome and hence could not have arisen from him.
Ok by me. You use Eisegesis - look it up.Quote:
Exegesis has to do with interpretation rather than translation
It was done more than once before being accepted as the canon in the 4th century. Matthew 25:46 is a good example since it appears nowhere in the fragments you cited (using your own argument).Quote:
No one should translate the Bible by changing the clear meaning of a text to suit someone else's opinions.
Sorry, Jl, you're missing the point - again! Bigly. Your interlinear is the version/verse under contention. Not germane to the issue.Quote:
But if you want to see this for sure, here you go. This is Mt. 25 in interlinear. You can read it for yourself.