JoeT777
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Why sure it’s literal, unembroidered. I can see how you can take verses John 6:26-48 (51) metaphorically, but then you’re left with verses John 6:52-72 which are emphatically literal; even Protestant writers such as
No it is not. Moreover He was not talking about the Eucharist there at all. That is what the RC would want everybody to believe. They insist and you insist on this because only then does the non-scriptural RC doctrine of the transubstantiation stand. Sorry but Christs' very act of dividing of the bread and wind to His disciples was symbolic
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This was foretold in Isaiah, “feed your enemies with their own flesh: and they shall be made drunk with their own blood, as with new wine: and all flesh shall know, that I am the Lord that save you, and your Redeemer the Mighty One (Isaiah 49:26). If Christ didn’t feed them flesh, then he wasn’t the “Mighty One” now was he?
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This does not make any sense. You are extracting non-existent meaning from the verse.
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If you reject Mary you reject Christ, if you reject His Church you reject Mary.
No that is non-scriptural. That is just one of the technique the RC uses to force you to accept Mary as someone she is not.
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To say that Mary was born with original sin and actual sin means that she was a slave to sin as are all of us born of man.
First of all "That all of us are born with an original sin" is in itself a non-scriptural hoax. And yes Mary was a slave to sin as all of us are. For the scripture says that only Christ is without sin no one else is.
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The ‘Perfect Sacrificial Lamb’ would have been born out of a slave to the devil and resided in filth; thus such a person does not meet prophetically and divine requirement for perfection - not my requirement, but God's requirement to send the PERFECT Lamb and the Messiah.
I have already explained about this guess you did not read it properly.