Originally Posted by Morganite
I am not making a case for Trinitarianism, nor for Oneness that seems to have a lot in common with Trinitarian thinking. My Bible shows that The Son is not the Father, and the Holy Ghost is another, seperate, person in a Godhead of three individual persons whose oneness is in purpose and not in substance.
Not all the Bible is allegorical, and the eye witness report of the proto-martyr Stephen (Acts 7.55-57) identifies the seperate locations of three persons, and other passages, especially in John, which I believe you misunderstand and wrongly interpret.
The kenotic passage you quote raises significant difficulties both for your position and for the trinitarian view, where Jesus emptied himself in the incarnation. Being thus emptied [of what was he emptied?], immediately prior to his atoning crucifixion we find himself pleading to his Father, not to himself, to restore the glory he had WITH the Father before he emptied himself of it to walk as man-God among men and not be seen to be different, even though he was.
If Jesus the Son of God - emptied or otherwise - was the exact same person as God the Father, why was it necessary for Jesus to petition the Father to restore his glory, why could he not simply restore it himself by a divine act?
There are passages where Jesus prays to God the Father for wisdom before making momentous decisions, such as choosing the apostles. If he was none other than the father-God what purpose would he have in consulting himself?
Further, the Gospel of John is a delicious feast of passages in which Jesus is showm to be divine but yet dependent upon the Father-God, and, for example, turning away from himself the appellation of 'good,' directing the Rich Youn man to call none good save One, and that was not Jesus himself. John contains many similar passages where Jesus makes a sharp distinction between himself and God the Father that cannot be ignonred nor passed over, but all must be taken into account when we are trying to unravel truths about the Godhead from the pages of scripture.
What is Jesus saying when he tells Mary not to cling to him because he has not yet ascended to his Father in Heaven, but instructs her to tell the disciples that he is going to go to their God and his God, and to their father and to his father? If Jesus was the father himself, his words would be a nonsense. Only iof his Father were a separate operson do they make sense.
In John 14, he identifies the three seperate persons of the Godhead. When he goes, he will send 'another comforter.' If his disciples are faithful, then he promises that both he and the Father will abide with them. If Jesus was both the Father and the second comforter, then why didn't he simply say so? He didn't say so because it isn't true. God is not the author of confusion, so we must believe what Jesus says, take into account everything he says about the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit, and not confuse them as being One in Oneness or One in Trinity.
The question of this thread is did Jesus ever say he was God, meaning, I assume, that he was God the father. The answer from his own mouth has to be"No!" He showed himself to be subordinate to the Father:
"Father if it be possible let this cup pass from me. nevertheless NOT MY WILL, BUT THINE BE DONE"
Here, Jesus plainly and without any absence of clarity, differentiates between his own will and the will of the Father, and chooses to subserviate his own will to that of the Father. Nothing could be more plain or incapable of being misunderstood.
I enjoy your posts, but please do not be concerned with spelling etc. As you can see, I often make mistakes. I shall read what you say, and not how you spell it.
M:)RGANITE