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The canon of Scripture is not itself included in Scripture. No book of the Bible lists which texts are to be included in the canon. By using a canon of Scripture, therefore, you are appealing to something outside of Scripture, some process of canon-formation (i.e. tradition) that isn't contained in the texts of the Bible.
I think it was in my first post that I said Sola scriptura does not preclude the use of other resources in our understanding. Sola scriptura is not believed "in a vacuum," so this argument along with that of the OP on versions and errors is irrelevant to the discussion.
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Remarkable how reading comprehension skills go out the window in the face of this passage. It tells us that all of Scripture is inspired by God. (To be maximally precise: The quantifier, "all", ranges over the term "Scriptures".) Scripture is profitable/useful (depending upon the translation you use). What is it profitable/useful for? Why, for teaching, reproof, correction, and training in righteousness. Now these four things (teaching, reproof, correction, and training in righteousness) render one completely or thoroughly furnished... for what? For doing good works (i.e. not for salvation).
You chose the passage, not me.
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And you claim to get sola scriptura out of that? There's nothing here that even remotely hints at sola scriptura. Oh, but there are lots of passages that affirm the authority of oral tradition. I cited a few of them in my earlier post.
I made no such claim, I expounded further on the passage you chose. Tell me, where did this doctrine come from and why? What's the unbiased, unvarnished history behind it?