Don't rub her nose in it.
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The link took me somewhere else. I've found that such links don't really help as a way to recall older posts. Even referencing the number of the post doesn't always work; the numbering in my computer may not be the same as in yours.
Sorry. It was a rhetorical question.Quote:
You ask, "What is there to obey?" Is that a serious inquiry?
In this case, it refers to James' audience.Quote:
In other words, "refusing to believe". Whom do you think this is in reference to?
The question of Jesus being separated into divine and human is important to the original question. That being along the lines of the possibility of someone who is fully divine and fully human being capable of sin.
My apologies to Athos. I think it is Wondergirl who has adopted the correct position in relation to this question. In future I will try and not be so sloppy with my responses.
Can we talk in an intelligible way about divinity and humanity being one and the same. We can say they are but what types of arguments can we put forward for such a synthesis? I think we are pretty much limited to the conclusion that we can't talk about it in an intelligible way. All we can say is that it is a 'divine mystery'
What we can talk about is God using various logical and ontological arguments. At the same time we can also talk about Jesus as a man using empirical arguments. On this basis I think that it makes sense to talk about the real possibility that Jesus could have sinned. The fact that he didn't doesn't detract from the empirical possibility.
Tut
Why would God have taken on a human nature if He wouldn't have been able to sin? What would have been the point?
But weren't we talking about something St. Peter said? How did St. James audience get into this?
Previously, on this thread:
Quote:
What happens if we DO NOT obey the Gospel?
1 Peter 4:17
For the time is come that judgment must begin at the house of God: and if it first begin at us, what shall the end be of them that obey not the gospel of God? 18And if the righteous scarcely be saved, where shall the ungodly and the sinner appear? 19Wherefore let them that suffer according to the will of God commit the keeping of their souls to him in well doing, as unto a faithful Creator.
He came to give us an example to follow:
1 Peter 2:21
For even hereunto were ye called: because Christ also suffered for us, leaving us an example, that ye should follow his steps:
In order that we might be saved. He didn't come to give us an example of sin.
The point is that we must be like Jesus, constantly united to the Father in the Holy Spirit.Quote:
What would have been the point?
Huh? You lost me there. Better check your logic.
Oh, OK.Quote:
We can say they are but what types of arguments can we put forward for such a synthesis? I think we are pretty much limited to the conclusion that we can't talk about it in an intelligible way. All we can say is that it is a 'divine mystery'
If it is possible that He could have sinned, then you can't call Him God.Quote:
What we can talk about is God using various logical and ontological arguments. At the same time we can also talk about Jesus as a man using empirical arguments. On this basis I think that it makes sense to talk about the real possibility that Jesus could have sinned. The fact that he didn't doesn't detract from the empirical possibility.
Sincerely,Quote:
Tut
Jesus had two natures and two wills. The Divine and the human will. Which do you think is stronger?
Not committing sin is a great example no matter whether He was capable or not. But He didn't come to show us how not to sin. Jesus came to show us how to love.Quote:
and was able to be tempted and fall just like we do -- but He said no and didn't sin! What an example for us to follow!
They were equal? Think about that for a minute. The Divine Will rules the cosmos. The human will rules the human body.
At least, that's how I understand it.
True. But I think he did the showing us how not to sin by showing us how to love:Quote:
He came to show us both.
Romans 13:10
Love worketh no ill to his neighbour: therefore love is the fulfilling of the law.
Okay. I thought about it for a minute. Yes, they were equal. Remember, no one like Jesus has ever existed. There was a definite tension between His human and divine natures, just like the tension between Law and Gospel. What wondrous mystery!
And Jesus did both very nicely.Quote:
But I think he did the showing us how not to sin by showing us how to love:
Romans 13:10
Love worketh no ill to his neighbour: therefore love is the fulfilling of the law.
I've thought about it and it remains clear that we can't call Jesus God if He can sin. And that is for more than one reason.
You're thinking of Jesus as though His Divinity is separate from His humanity. But His humanity was always subject to His Divinity.
When Jesus was born of Mary, it isn't as though His humanity passed through the birth canal and the Divinity went around. The Divinity is part and parcel of Jesus person. And mothers give birth to persons. Therefore, Mary is the Mother of God. And therefore, Jesus could not have sinned. Because Jesus is God.
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