Originally Posted by
Alty
That still makes no sense to me. My dad died 6 1/2 months before my mom. My dad had a cell phone, only his, he got it, he signed the contract. My mom never used it, didn't even know where it was when he died. She had to pay out the contract. When she died there was $50 left to be paid on that contract, and as the executor of the will, I had to pay it. Neither one of us signed that contract, but we had to pay, because my dad was deceased, my mom was his wife, and I was the executor of their will.
Marital assets are marital assets, right? So if you're married, and your assets are joined, doesn't that mean that if a judgment is made on your husband, it's made on you as well? It's joint.
It just makes no sense to me why the OP should be out the money that he/she won in court, because the defendant is deceased. This should be covered by his estate. Not the wife and kids, but his estate, which may well mean that the wife and kids need to pay up.
Does this man even have a will?