My mother died in 1980. She left a handwritten will. She owned property with my step dad. She left five minor children. In 1998 my step dad did a succession on my mother. He totally left out my siblings. He sold the property without legally notifying my sibs or settling with them. It is my understanding at the time and of presence that he could not do this. NONE of her children ever signed a legal document to give him any permission to sell property. Is it too late to contest this fifteen years later. I need to know for my peace of mind. Thank you

How was the property titled prior to your mother's death? You say she owned it "with [your] step dad" - if the property was titled as joint tenants with right of survivorship (which is the most common way for married couples to own property together) then full title would have passed directly to your step dad upon her death regardless of what her will said, and there is no issue. But if the property was held in her name only or jointly as "tenants in common," and if the will was considered to be valid by the probate court back in 1980, then there is an issue. So - do you know how the land was titled prior to her death?

What ebaines said is true, but I would think the statute of limitations on this has long passed so even if there was some illegality, its too late to do anything about it.

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Originally Posted by ScottGem

What ebaines said is true, but I would think the statute of limitations on this has long passed so even if there was some illegality, its too late to do anything about it.

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OP would have to had been of age (or almost) at the time, so minority would not have had any effect either.