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    sherwingoff's Avatar
    sherwingoff Posts: 2, Reputation: 1
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    #1

    May 23, 2007, 01:06 AM
    Decompose = "See Corruption"
    A human body begins to decompose (corrupt) within hours after death, so how could Jesus have been in the tomb for 3 days and 3 nights? He died at 3:00p.m. in the tomb before sundown and the priests soon presented the slain lamb sacrifice. So Jesus was dead for at most 4 hours so that His body would not see corruption (Psalm 16:10). Is decomposing the same as "see corruption."
    tickle's Avatar
    tickle Posts: 23,796, Reputation: 2674
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    #2

    May 23, 2007, 04:23 AM
    I imagine the bible would use different terminology for decompose, as in 'corruption'.
    Fr_Chuck's Avatar
    Fr_Chuck Posts: 81,301, Reputation: 7692
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    #3

    May 23, 2007, 05:47 AM
    Same way as the people Jesus raised from the dead on various occasions also. And body decomposing and spitual corruption are of couse not the same thing. Please remember you have to use terms and words as used 2000 years ago, not today's meanings. Throw out your 2007 dictionary and get a bible one.
    Emland's Avatar
    Emland Posts: 2,468, Reputation: 496
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    #4

    May 23, 2007, 06:23 AM
    I think because Jesus was Divine was the reason he did not begin to decompose.

    Didn't a part of Pope John Paull II's application for sainthood included that although he was not embalmed, he did not decompose before being entombed?
    Xrayman's Avatar
    Xrayman Posts: 1,177, Reputation: 193
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    #5

    May 27, 2007, 05:37 PM
    I think this is more a question of theology rather than forensic anthropology.

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