[islandofdreams]

I have a quick question.. ok maybe not so quick..
I have been married for 8 years. We own two houses. My husband and I physically separated since June, 2006. Since that time he moved into his home and I reside in my home (both homes purchased prior to the marriage and titled in our respective names). Since the separation he has not contributed to the marital home, mortgage, utilities, taxes, etc.. On top of that he has not contributed to day care, child care, children's clothing, health care etc.. He has actually never really contributed to this home other than some projects around the house. His children from a prior marriage also lived here. When we were residing in this home as a family his home was rented for a good part of that period. He took the rental income and paid his mortgage, taxes etc. he did not contribute to the marital home.

I do make a fairly substantial living, will that impact the fact that I have paid for this home and it's upkeep or will a judge disregard that and say, equal marriage, equal distribution?

My question is, if we divorce, how is this going to pan out. Is he going to be able to squeeze equity out of this home? Will he owe me some kind of backpayment for "rent" or upkeep to the home?

[AltaVista]

Different States have different laws, it would really help to know where you live.

[islandofdreams]

We live in CT.